Porcupyn's Blog

December 28, 2007

Is a No Ball a Ball?

Filed under: Uncategorized — Porcupyn @ 10:22 am

Well, it does appear to be so – from the batsman’s standpoint, if you look at the scoreboard. I disagree. Why should the ball be credited (debited?) to the batsman when it is an illegal delivery and does not show up in the team’s (or bowlers’) over total? I kinda knew about how this worked, but got proof today. Sample this:

West Indies 1st innings R M B 4s 6s SR

FH Edwards c Prince b Nel 0 4 4 0 0 0.00

Fall of wickets:… 9-407 (Chanderpaul, 133.1 ov), 10-408 (Edwards, 133.4 ov)

Fidel should be shown as having played only three balls, and the one extra (no ball or wide ball) should be removed from the total number of balls he faced.


  1. I think the issue of accounting for the ball count depends on whether you are responsible for scoring or conceding runs. Crediting noballs(batsman) clarifies the anomaly of a player getting out to his first legal delivery after scoring 10-15 off no-balls. Byes/Legbyes are not debited from a bowler’s analysis for same reason.

    Good blog, btw 🙂

    Comment by thetalkativeman — December 28, 2007 @ 1:54 pm | Reply

  2. And what if a one or mroe runs were scored off of that ball. How will you show that in the statistics? S/R gets messed up…

    I disagree with you.

    Comment by December Stud — January 2, 2008 @ 8:19 pm | Reply

  3. D.S.:

    “And what if a one or mroe runs were scored off of that ball. How will you show that in the statistics?”

    Let’s say the batting team needs four runs to win in the 50th over. The fielding team captain decides to give the ball to a bowler bowling his first over of the innings – the first ball, a no ball is whacked for a boundary. Why do you like this bowler’s analysis of 0-0-5-0? Isn’t that also weird?


    What about the wide ball? If a ball is unreachable, why should the ball be counted for the batsmen? Why not add the leg bye to his score? Yada yada yada …

    Here are my points:

    – bowler screwed up and needs to be punished for the illegal ball (wide/no ball).

    – bowling team should suffer consequences.

    But since the batsman is already getting a break in that he is not out (except run out*) off a no ball, why even credit him for anything he does with that ball? The fact that he could not put away a no ball – who knows how far ahead of the crease the bowler was bowling from – should not take away from him (batsman).

    I would take away the (no) ball off the batsman’s statistics as well as not credit him with any runs made off it.

    My proposal:

    a) move the bowler’s analysis back to what it used to be, i.e., do not debit no balls or wides against the bowler. Leg byes and byes are truly extras.

    b) The batsman gets neither the resulting runs nor does he get penalized for the extra (no) ball that he faced.

    c) The batting team gets the extra runs, but the (no) balls are not counted against the total number of overs faced.

    d) The bowling team concedes the extra runs, but the (no) balls are not counted.

    Fair enough?


    Thanks for stopping by.

    * The run out blows one hole in my logic, and you can claim that because the batsman is risking his wicket for a run off the no ball, he should get credit for completing it successfully.

    Comment by porcupyn — January 3, 2008 @ 4:46 pm | Reply

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